computed tomography (CT)

A 48-year-old woman presents with acute onset severe left flank pain radiating to the groin, associated with nausea. She denies fever or dysuria. Vitals are stable. Urinalysis shows haematuria. Serum creatinine is 75 µmol/L. An ultrasound is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A 68-year-old male with a long history of alcohol-related cirrhosis and previous treatment for hepatitis C presents with increasing abdominal distension, fatigue, and a dull ache in the right upper quadrant. He denies acute pain or fever. On examination, he has mild jaundice, shifting dullness, and spider naevi. His vital signs are stable. Recent blood tests show albumin 28 g/L, INR 1.4, total bilirubin 45 µmol/L, ALT 65 U/L, AST 88 U/L, creatinine 90 µmol/L. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is 850 µg/L (normal <10). An abdominal CT scan with contrast is performed, axial views of which are shown. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, laboratory results, and the findings on the provided imaging, what is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 72-year-old male with a history of smoking and hyperlipidemia presents for a health check. He is asymptomatic. A contrast-enhanced CT abdomen is performed as part of a screening protocol. An axial view is shown. Besides optimizing medical management, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 45-year-old male with a known history of Blue Rubber Bleb Naevus Syndrome, characterised by recurrent gastrointestinal bleeding and multiple cutaneous vascular lesions, presents to the emergency department with acute onset severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, his abdomen is distended and diffusely tender with reduced bowel sounds. Vital signs are within normal limits. An urgent abdominal CT scan is performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

A 68-year-old male presents with new onset constipation and abdominal pain. The provided CT was obtained. What is the MOST likely long-term complication?

A 68-year-old male presents with fatigue, weight loss, and vague abdominal discomfort. His past medical history includes a recent diagnosis of gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC). The provided image was obtained as part of his staging workup. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of worsening left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with subjective fever, chills, and nausea. He reports some recent constipation. On examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, pulse 95 bpm, BP 130/80 mmHg. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. Bowel sounds are reduced. Blood tests show a white cell count of 15 x 10^9/L (neutrophils 85%) and C-reactive protein of 120 mg/L. Urea, electrolytes, and creatinine are within normal limits. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed (image provided). Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A 63-year-old man presents with iron deficiency anemia. The provided CT was performed. What is the MOST likely cause of his anemia?

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with severe groin pain and a palpable mass. He reports constipation and inability to pass flatus for 24 hours. Examination reveals tenderness and erythema. A CT scan is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 70-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of worsening constipation, occasional bright red rectal bleeding, and unexplained fatigue. His GP notes mild pallor. Full blood count reveals a haemoglobin of 105 g/L and low ferritin. A colonoscopy is performed, and the image provided is a representative view of a finding in the sigmoid colon. Biopsies were taken. Considering the clinical context and the endoscopic appearance, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management pathway to determine the extent of disease?

A 68-year-old male presents with a 2-day history of worsening left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever (38.5°C), and nausea. He has a history of similar, milder pain episodes. Examination reveals left iliac fossa tenderness with guarding. Bloods show WCC 16, CRP 120. A CT scan is performed (image provided). Considering the clinical picture and the imaging findings, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A 2-year-old with a palpable abdominal mass and periorbital ecchymoses has the shown CT. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A 68-year-old woman presents with 3 days of left lower quadrant pain. She reports mild nausea but no vomiting or fever. On examination, she is afebrile, BP 130/80, HR 78, O2 sat 98% on air. There is localised tenderness in the LLQ. Bloods show WCC 13.2, CRP 45. A CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of left-sided hemianopia and mild right-sided weakness. Her symptoms began approximately 4 hours prior to arrival. Initial neurological examination reveals intact language function and no cognitive deficits. A CT angiogram was performed, followed by endovascular coiling. The provided image shows a post-operative angiogram. Despite the intervention, the patient's hemianopia persists, and her weakness has slightly worsened. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 62-year-old male presents to the ED with left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and nausea for 3 days. His WBC count is 14,000. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 32-year-old woman presents to the ED with acute lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea but denies fever or vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the relevant image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of worsening constipation, occasional bright red rectal bleeding, and unintentional weight loss of 4 kg. She reports feeling increasingly tired. Her past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. On examination, her vital signs are stable. Abdominal examination is soft, non-tender, with no palpable masses. Digital rectal examination reveals no palpable lesion. Blood tests show a haemoglobin of 108 g/L, MCV 78 fL, and ferritin 12 µg/L. A colonoscopy was performed, and the image provided was captured during the procedure. Considering the clinical presentation and the finding observed during the colonoscopy, which of the following investigations is most crucial for determining the extent of disease and guiding definitive treatment planning within the multidisciplinary team framework?

A 68-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a three-month history of progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids, accompanied by postprandial regurgitation. He also reports experiencing early satiety and occasional episodes of nocturnal coughing. His past medical history is significant for well-controlled hypertension and a remote history of smoking (quit 20 years ago). Physical examination reveals mild epigastric fullness, but is otherwise unremarkable. His vital signs are within normal limits. An abdominal CT scan with contrast was performed, and a representative image is shown. Given the clinical presentation and the findings on the image, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 28-year-old immunocompetent patient presents with a chronic cough and low-grade fever. Initial investigations, including sputum microscopy, are negative. A PET-CT scan was performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 45-year-old woman presents to the ED with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and nausea for 24 hours. Her vital signs are: HR 105 bpm, BP 130/80 mmHg, Temp 38.5°C. Physical exam reveals marked tenderness on palpation of the right upper quadrant. An abdominal CT scan is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of worsening abdominal pain, primarily localized to the right lower quadrant. He reports associated nausea and decreased appetite but denies vomiting or diarrhea. His past medical history is significant for Crohn's disease, diagnosed 8 years ago, managed with intermittent courses of oral corticosteroids and azathioprine. He admits to poor adherence to his azathioprine regimen over the past year. On examination, he is afebrile with a heart rate of 92 bpm, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness to palpation in the right lower quadrant with guarding. Bowel sounds are normoactive. Laboratory investigations reveal a white blood cell count of 11,500/µL with neutrophilia, a C-reactive protein (CRP) of 45 mg/L, and normal liver function tests. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast is performed, the relevant images of which are shown. Given the patient's presentation and imaging findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old male presents with intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and melena. He has a history of multiple cutaneous hemangiomas. A CT scan of the abdomen is performed, as shown. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of the patient's presentation?

A 70-year-old male with known gastric MANEC presents with worsening jaundice and ascites. The provided CT scan was performed. Which of the following serum markers would be MOST useful in monitoring disease progression in this patient?

A 65-year-old man presents with 2 days of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and nausea. On examination, he is afebrile, haemodynamically stable, with localised tenderness in the LLQ. Blood tests show a WCC of 14.5. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports a recent fall but denies any significant trauma. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His INR is 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in management?

A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 6-hour history of sudden onset, severe pain and swelling in his right groin. He reports nausea but no vomiting. On examination, there is a tender, firm, non-reducible lump in the right inguinal region. Bowel sounds are present. Vitals are stable: BP 130/80, HR 75, Temp 36.8°C. A CT scan of the pelvis is performed, shown in the image. Integrating the patient's symptoms, physical examination, and the findings shown in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step?

A 62-year-old male presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant abdominal pain, weight loss, and jaundice. He has a known history of chronic hepatitis C infection. His vital signs are stable. Physical examination reveals hepatomegaly and mild ascites. The patient denies any alcohol consumption. Laboratory investigations reveal elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels. A CT scan of the abdomen with and without contrast is performed, as shown. Based on the imaging and clinical findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents for a routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. A contrast-enhanced CT abdomen, axial view shown, was performed as part of a screening protocol. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of intermittent abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 24 hours. He reports passing a small amount of blood in his stool this morning. He denies any fever or chills. His past medical history is significant for multiple cutaneous hemangiomas, which he has had since childhood. On physical examination, his abdomen is mildly distended and tender to palpation in the periumbilical region. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. The patient is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the results of which are shown. Given the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 28-year-old female presents to the ED with acute onset right lower quadrant pain. She reports nausea and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she denies any vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

An 80-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right groin pain and a non-reducible bulge. He has a history of a reducible inguinal hernia. Vitals are stable. A CT scan of the pelvis is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the provided imaging, what is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with a painful lump in his groin that has been present for 3 days. He reports nausea but denies vomiting. His vital signs are stable. An abdominal CT is performed, and a slice is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. An abdominal CT scan is performed, as shown. She has a history of similar episodes that resolved spontaneously. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 28-year-old female presents with sudden onset severe right lower quadrant pain, associated with nausea and one episode of vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. On examination, she is afebrile, heart rate 88, blood pressure 120/70. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the right iliac fossa. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant axial image shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 35-year-old male presents with hemoptysis and weight loss. PET-CT is shown. Bronchoscopy with biopsy is MOST likely to reveal which of the following?

A 75-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of worsening colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and multiple episodes of bilious vomiting. She reports no passage of flatus or stool for the past 18 hours. Her past medical history includes an open appendectomy 30 years ago and a hysterectomy 10 years ago. On examination, she is afebrile, heart rate 92 bpm, blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Her abdomen is distended and diffusely tender to palpation, with high-pitched tinkling bowel sounds on auscultation. A plain abdominal X-ray series, including the image provided, was obtained. Considering the patient's clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate next step in her management?

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 35-year-old female presents with chronic pelvic pain. The provided CT was performed. What is the MOST appropriate initial management?

A 35-year-old male presents to the ED with intermittent abdominal pain, nausea, and melena. He has multiple cutaneous hemangiomas. A CT scan is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 65-year-old man presents to his GP with a 2-day history of constant, dull aching pain in the left lower quadrant of his abdomen. He reports mild nausea but no vomiting. His bowel movements have been normal. He denies fever or chills. His past medical history includes well-controlled hypertension. On examination, he is afebrile (37.2°C), blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, heart rate 72 bpm, respiratory rate 16 bpm. Abdominal examination reveals mild tenderness on deep palpation in the left iliac fossa, without guarding or rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are normal. Digital rectal examination is unremarkable. Laboratory investigations show a white cell count of 10.5 x 10^9/L (normal range 4-11) and a C-reactive protein of 25 mg/L (normal <5). A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed (image provided). Considering the patient's clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A 70-year-old male undergoes a CT scan for investigation of chronic back pain. He denies abdominal pain or pulsatile mass. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. The provided image is an axial view from this scan. Based on this finding and the patient's clinical status, what is the most appropriate next step in management according to Australian guidelines?

A 68-year-old male presents with fatigue, weight loss, and vague abdominal discomfort. His past medical history includes a recent diagnosis of gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC). A CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the results of which are shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of acute onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports that the pain started suddenly this morning and has been gradually worsening. He has a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, for which he takes warfarin. He denies any recent trauma or injury. On examination, his vital signs are: heart rate 115 bpm, blood pressure 95/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 30 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 87% on room air. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds on the right side. The patient appears pale and is diaphoretic. His INR is 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed, and the relevant image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old male with a known history of Blue Rubber Bleb Naevus Syndrome, characterised by recurrent gastrointestinal bleeding and multiple cutaneous vascular lesions, presents to the emergency department with acute onset severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, his abdomen is distended and diffusely tender with reduced bowel sounds. Vital signs are within normal limits. An urgent abdominal CT scan is performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

A 65-year-old male presents with a 2-month history of fatigue, poor appetite, and 5kg weight loss. He reports mild upper abdominal discomfort. Physical examination is unremarkable. Initial blood tests show mild anaemia. An upper endoscopy revealed a suspicious gastric lesion, with biopsy results pending. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis was performed. Given the clinical presentation and the findings on the provided imaging, which of the following statements regarding this patient's likely prognosis and management is most accurate?

A 62-year-old male with a history of hepatitis C presents with new-onset right upper quadrant pain and a 5kg weight loss over the past 3 months. His liver function tests show elevated ALT and AST. An abdominal CT scan with and without contrast is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and smoking presents to his GP with mild, intermittent abdominal discomfort. His vital signs are stable, and abdominal examination is soft and non-tender. As part of the workup, a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. The provided image is an axial view from this study. Based on the clinical context and the findings in the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?

A 68-year-old man presents with 3 days of worsening left lower quadrant pain, fever, and nausea. He has a history of diverticulosis. On examination, he is tachycardic (HR 105), afebrile (37.5°C), and has localised tenderness with guarding in the left iliac fossa. His blood tests show a WCC of 16 x 10^9/L and CRP 150 mg/L. He is commenced on intravenous antibiotics. A CT scan is performed (image provided). Considering the clinical context and the findings on the image, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of increasing constipation alternating with loose stools, occasional rectal bleeding, and fatigue. He denies significant weight loss. Physical examination is unremarkable. Full blood count shows a haemoglobin of 115 g/L with low ferritin. A colonoscopy was performed, and the image provided is a representative view. Biopsies were taken from the observed lesion. Considering the clinical presentation and the endoscopic finding, what is the most appropriate next investigation to determine the extent of disease and inform definitive management planning?

A 65-year-old male presents with acute LLQ pain. The provided image was obtained. What dietary advice is most appropriate upon resolution of acute symptoms?